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CommodoreSalamanderMaster198
Which of the following provides “proof” that observational learning…
Which of the following provides “proof” that observational learning has occurred?
a.
reward
b.
remembrance
c.
reproduction
d.
attention
QUESTION 2
River’s mom keeps a chart on the refrigerator and adds a gold star for each day that River’s chores are completed. River’s mom is using
a.
partial reinforcement.
b.
token economy.
c.
primary reinforcement.
d.
schedule of reinforcement.
QUESTION 3
In operant conditioning, response cost is another term for
a.
positive reinforcement.
b.
negative reinforcement.
c.
positive punishment.
d.
negative punishment.
QUESTION 4
Emma keeps getting in trouble at school. Every time this occurs, the school notifies her parents, and she is punished when she gets home. But Emma’s parents have high-stress jobs and little time, so sometimes they forget about the problem and Emma manages to escape punishment. What is the likely reason why Emma’s bad behavior at school is still occurring?
a.
The punishment she receives is inconsistent.
b.
The parents use counterconditioning as punishment.
c.
The punishment is out of scale for her behavior.
d.
The parents are modeling their own poor behaviors.
QUESTION 5
Operant conditioning occurs when a voluntary action is followed by a
a.
stimulus.
b.
token.
c.
expectancy.
d.
reinforcer
QUESTION 6
A toddler who smiles at the sound of a parent’s voice, but gets anxious at the sound of a stranger’s voice, is demonstrating
a.
stimulus discrimination.
b.
law of effect.
c.
spontaneous recovery.
d.
extinction.
QUESTION 7
Rosa learns that whenever her brother shares his cookie with her, their mother gives him a piece of candy. Rosa starts sharing her treats with her friends when they come over in the hopes of getting a similar reward. Rosa’s learning to share is an example of
a.
operant conditioning
b.
classical conditioning
c.
observational learning
d.
cognitive learning
QUESTION 8
When practicing behavioral self-management, which of the following enables you to measure progress toward your goal?
a.
reducing antecedents and cues
b.
mapping schedules of reinforcement
c.
recording a baseline of the behavior
d.
applying covert sensitization
QUESTION 9
Aisha has started a new job. At work, she is given a mentor to help her learn what to do at work. Which type of learning method will Aisha learn about her job?
a.
observational learning
b.
classical conditioning
c.
operant conditioning
d.
shaping
QUESTION 10
Whenever Frank goes to his daughter Chloe’s house, she lets him sit at the head of the table, where he sneaks food to the dog. The dog always waits there expectantly for food whenever Frank visits. When Frank isn’t there, Chloe sits at the head of the table, and the dog does not wait for food. This is an example of
a.
generalization.
b.
extinction.
c.
discrimination.
d.
punishment.
QUESTION 11
Which researcher defined the law of effect?
a.
Bandura
b.
Thorndike
c.
Skinner
d.
Tolman
2 points
QUESTION 12
In the context of learning and conditioning, punishment is considered a(n)
a.
stimulus.
b.
response.
c.
consequence.
d.
antecedent.
2 points
QUESTION 13
Young Nathan has a loud temper tantrum in the toy aisle at the store. Despite disapproving looks from other customers, Nathan’s parents ignore his outburst and continue shopping. What are the parents hoping to achieve through their approach to the situation?
a.
desensitization
b.
punishment
c.
disinhibition
d.
extinction
2 points
QUESTION 14
Which of the following best defines the term stimulus generalization?
a.
a method of reducing fear by gradually exposing people to the object of their fear
b.
the learned ability to respond differently to similar stimuli
c.
the reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction
d.
the tendency to respond to stimuli similar to a conditioned stimulus
2 points
QUESTION 15
Hamza is conditioning rats to press a lever for a food reward. No matter how many times a rat presses the lever, it receives a food pellet on average every four minutes. Which type of reinforcement schedule is Hamza using in his research?
a.
variable interval
b.
fixed interval
c.
fixed ratio
d.
variable ratio
2 points
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning?
a.
Kicking your leg when you are hit on the knee.
b.
Getting sick after eating scrambled eggs and then later avoiding scrambled eggs since just looking at them makes you feel sick.
c.
Completing extra credit in class to get a better grade.
d.
Jumping when there is a loud noise.
2 points
QUESTION 17
In operant conditioning, the probability of making a response is altered by which of the following factors?
a.
intensity of the reinforcement
b.
timing of learning
c.
learned expectancy
d.
generalizability
2 points
QUESTION 18
Which one of the following is a widely used intelligence test primarily made up of age-ranked questions and is appropriate for people aged 2 to 85+ years?
a.
Differential Ability Scales
b.
Otis-Lennon School Ability Test
c.
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition
d.
Woodcock-Johnson Tests of Cognitive Abilities
2 points
QUESTION 19
Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition, quantitative reasoning test items are intended to measure
a.
a person’s ability to solve problems involving numbers.
b.
a person’s ability at putting picture puzzles together.
c.
a person’s knowledge about a wide range of topics.
d.
a person’s capability to reason in unfamiliar situations.
2 points
QUESTION 20
Every May, Pinehaven Health, Inc. administers the Counseling Psychology Exam for those interested in working as counseling psychologists at Pinehaven Health. Test-takers are divided into groups of 20 and are given three hours to complete the exam. Each year, all test administrators read the same instructions to their groups. Results are then compared to the average score of a group of counseling psychologists. This is an example of test
a.
reliability.
b.
validity.
c.
scoring.
d.
standardization.
2 points
QUESTION 21
Which of the following will most likely occur if one improves their metacognitive skills?
a.
One’s problem-solving ability will improve.
b.
One’s nervous system will become more efficient.
c.
One will have enhanced reaction time.
d.
One will acquire more specialized skills.
2 points
QUESTION 22
Which factor is the most important when evaluating intellectual disability?
a.
adaptive behaviors
b.
metacognitive skills
c.
special aptitudes
d.
general intelligence
2 points
QUESTION 23
When a test measures what it claims to measure, it is said to have the characteristic of
a.
validity.
b.
fluidity.
c.
crystallization.
d.
reliability.
2 points
QUESTION 24
Sky and Maddie are both 15 years old and have been best friends since kindergarten. Sky attended an ECE program in preschool, but Maddie did not. According to the research on ECE programs, who is more likely to graduate from high school?
a.
Sky will graduate high school with honors since ECE programs increase IQ score, but Maddie will also graduate from high school.
b.
Sky is more likely to graduate from high school.
c.
Maddie is more likely to graduate from high school.
d.
Sky and Maddie are equally likely to graduate from high school as there are no long-term effects of ECE programs.
2 points
QUESTION 25
Samantha has received poor test scores her entire life. She repeated the fifth grade and struggled academically throughout high school. Samantha eventually earned her associate degree in culinary arts, became a certified working chef, and now owns her own thriving restaurant. Samantha enjoys a full life with a large support network and ample financial resources. Which of the following is the best explanation for Samantha’s success?
a.
Samantha was able to achieve her goals with community support despite her borderline intelligence.
b.
Samantha’s intelligence is not measured by standardized tests.
c.
Samantha has savant syndrome and has a special aptitude for cooking.
d.
Samantha’s family did not value intellect, which prevented her from reaching her full potential at a young age.
2 points
QUESTION 26
Which statement best reflects an overall lesson of the Flynn effect?
a.
Older adults typically have lower general intelligence than young adults.
b.
The definition and measurement of intelligence is intertwined with social and cultural factors.
c.
Young adults depend less on abstract reasoning than do older adults.
d.
Rapid increases in IQ scores over the last 50 years can largely be explained by genetics.
2 points
QUESTION 27
Which one of the following is a characteristic of children with familial intellectual disability?
a.
Affected children often live in poor neighborhoods with families below the poverty line and it can be prevented with better nutrition and education.
b.
Affected children are treated with hormone replacement therapy during infancy before permanent damage occurs.
c.
Affected children are only mildly intellectually disabled during early childhood but are often severely intellectually disabled as adults.
d.
Affected children are usually placed on a diet low in phenylalanine, the substance that the body can’t handle.
2 points
QUESTION 28
Which one of the following types of tests is defined as a test that measures two or more types of ability?
a.
multiple aptitude tests
b.
special aptitude tests
c.
psychometric tests
d.
reasoning tests
2 points
QUESTION 29
Which one of the following is a type of intellectual disability that appears in infancy and is caused by an insufficient supply of a specific type of hormone?
a.
Savant syndrome
b.
fragile X syndrome
c.
microcephaly
d.
congenital hypothyroidism
2 points
QUESTION 30
Which of the following is a result of Terman’s study that is also supported by other research?
a.
Children with higher IQs grow to be adults with greater socioeconomic success and advanced educational achievements.
b.
Personality characteristics are more important to success than high IQ scores.
c.
Children who are capable of achievement will be successful.
d.
Low IQ score often results in greater intellectual determination and a higher motivation to learn throughout adulthood.
2 points
QUESTION 31
Anna and Hanna are identical twins who took the Stanford-Binet in 1930 when they were 10 years old. Anna received a score of 100, and Hanna received a score of 120. Which of the following may explain the difference between the two scores?
a.
Anna and Hanna were raised in different homes.
b.
Hanna and Anna were both victims of the Flynn effect.
c.
Hanna and Anna took the test before the Stanford-Binet was standardized.
d.
Anna and Hanna were dramatically influenced by hereditary factors.
2 points
QUESTION 32
Sofia has taken an online personality test three times. Every time, her score shows that she is high in extraversion and low in conscientiousness. Which term best applies to the test?
a.
fluid
b.
valid
c.
reliable
d.
standardized
2 points
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is one of the controversies surrounding the use of intelligence tests?
a.
Intelligence tests do not show a difference between genders.
b.
The tests are not designed to be used for predicting achievement.
c.
The results of these assignments have been misused regarding differences based on a person’s race.
d.
The scores from IQ tests do not have a normal distribution.
2 points
QUESTION 34
Brain imaging studies have shown that people with higher IQ have
a.
no differences in the size of the cortex.
b.
larger left hemispheres.
c.
larger frontal cortexes.
d.
larger limbic systems.
2 points
QUESTION 35
Which of the following personality assessments differs most significantly from a rating scale assessment by exposing people to actual conditions rather than describing them?
a.
behavioral assessment
b.
objective test
c.
situational test
d.
projective test
2 points
QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a limitation of projective testing of personality?
a.
It is less effective in getting clients to discuss upsetting topics.
b.
It is unhelpful in setting goals for therapy.
c.
Its validity is uncertain.
d.
It fails to detect major conflicts.
2 points
QUESTION 37
Who among the following is considered a major humanistic theorist?
a.
Hans Eysenck
b.
Carl Rogers
c.
Carl Jung
d.
Karen Horney
QUESTION 38
Which of the following refers to Freud’s name for the “life instincts”?
a.
libido
b.
eros
c.
the psyche
d.
the id
2 points
QUESTION 39
In the context of the Big Five personality traits, when people tend to be anxious, emotionally “sour,” irritable, and unhappy, they are usually high in
a.
extroversion.
b.
neuroticism.
c.
agreeableness.
d.
openness to experience.
2 points
QUESTION 40
Behaviorists might attribute academic dishonesty (such as cheating) to
a.
students’ instinctual drives of anger against authority figures.
b.
specific situations in classes that let cheating take place.
c.
students’ biological predispositions to cheat in class.
d.
students’ lack of congruence between ideal and real selves.
2 points
QUESTION 41
You are interviewing for a new position, and the interviewer asks you to describe yourself. You tell him or her that you are driven, are results-oriented, and are highly reliable. Which of these did you just describe?
a.
character
b.
self-esteem
c.
self-concept
d.
temperament
QUESTION 42
In the context of the Big Five personality traits theory, when people are irresponsible, careless, and undependable, they are usually low on
a.
neuroticism.
b.
conscientiousness.
c.
extroversion.
d.
agreeableness.
2 points
QUESTION 43
Which of the following aspects of personality measured by the MMPI-2 test refers to emotional shallowness in relationships and a disregard for social and moral standards?
a.
social introversion
b.
psychopathic deviate
c.
schizophrenia
d.
mania
QUESTION 44
Which of the following is a projective test that consists of complex, irregular monochromatic shapes?
a.
The Thematic Apperception Test
b.
The Rorschach Inkblot Test
c.
The Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey
d.
The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
QUESTION 45
The ACT and SAT are aptitude tests used widely by colleges to rate incoming students. Which of the following best describes these?
a.
projective test
b.
personality questionnaire
c.
situational test
d.
objective test
QUESTION 46
According to Carl Rogers, which of the following describes the impact of being incongruent between one’s self-image and one’s ideal self?
a.
The further one’s self-image is from their ideal self, the more anxiety they will feel about their personality.
b.
The ideal self can never be attained, so being incongruent with one’s self-image will have no effect on one’s personality.
c.
The self-image must surpass the ideal self for incongruency to have a positive effect on one’s personality.
d.
The closer one’s self-image is to their ideal self, the more depression and disillusion one begins to feel toward their own personality.
QUESTION 47
Which of the following personality tests are used to measure source traits as described by Cattell?
a.
California Psychological Inventory
b.
Neuroticism, Extraversion, Openness Personality Inventory
c.
Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey
d.
Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire
QUESTION 48
Divya and her girlfriend go to an abstract art museum to view paintings. To which of the following personality tests is this most similar?
a.
Big Five
b.
MMPI-2
c.
Rorschach
d.
16PF
QUESTION 49
Prajesh and Alaina were set up on blind date. Their conversations were similar to which of the following?
a.
objective personality test
b.
projective personality test
c.
unstructured interview
d.
structured interview
QUESTION 50
According to Maslow’s theory, which of the following most accurately portrays the notion of peak experiences?
a.
Peak experiences refer to private perceptions of reality.
b.
Peak experiences refer to an ability to choose that is not determined by genetics, learning, or unconscious forces.
c.
Peak experiences refer to the capacity to laugh at oneself.
d.
Peak experiences refer to temporary moments of self-actualization